2. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square shaped XXYYinc office. A few wireless XXYYinc users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. From the list below, what are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Answer: C, E, F

3. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports 640-802
on the TIS­S are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected TIS­R and TIS­S ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight­through cables.
C. Reseat all cables.
D. Ensure the TIS­S has power.
Answer: B, C, D

4. An administrator is configuring a router that will act as the hub in a Frame Relay hub­and­spoke topology. What is the advantage of using point­to­point subinterfaces instead of a multipoint interface on this router?
A. It avoids split­horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. Only one IP network address needs to be used to communicate with all the spoke devices.
C. Only a single physical interface is needed with point­to­point subinterfaces, whereas a multipoint interface logically combines multiple physical interfaces.
D. Point­to­point subinterfaces offer greater security compared to a multipoint interface configuration.
Answer: A

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Answer: B, E

6. Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that TIS­workstation1 should be denied access to Server1. Which of the following commands are required to prevent only TIS­workstation1 from accessing Server1 while allowing all other traffic to flow normally? (Choose two.)

A. TIS­RA(config)# interface fa0/0
TIS­RA(config­if)# ip access­group 101 out
B. TIS­RA(config)# interface fa0/0
TIS­RA(config­if)# ip access­group 101 in
C. TIS­RAconfig)# access­list 101 deny ip host 172.16.161.150 host 172.16.162.163
TIS­RA(config)# access­list 101 permit ip any any
D. TIS­RA(config)# access­list 101 deny ip 172.16.161.150 0.0.0.255 172.16.162.163 0.0.0.0
TIS­RA(config)# access­list 101 permit ip any any
Answer: B, C

7. If you are a security administrator of the enterprise network ,you will see many different types of attacks that threaten the security of network. Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server?
A. denial of service
B. Computer Virus
C. reconnaissance
D. Trojan horse
Answer: A

8. How many subnets can be gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/23 into a /27 mask, and how many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?
A. 8 subnets, 31 hosts
B. 8 subnets, 32 hosts
C. 16 subnets, 30 hosts
D. A Class B address can’t be subnetted into the fourth octet.
Answer: C

9. Part of the XXYYinc WAN is shown below:
XXYYinc2 configuration exhibit: XXYYinc2#show ip route C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected to Fa0/1.1 C 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected to Fa0/1.2 XXYYinc network administrator has created a new VLAN on XXYYinc1 and added host TISC and host TISD. This administrator has properly configured switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 through FastEthernet0/14 to be members of the new VLAN. However, after the network administrator completed the configuration, host TISA could communicate with host TISB, but host TISA could not communicate with host TISC or host TISD. Which commands are required to resolve this problem?

A. XXYYinc2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1.3
XXYYinc2(config­if)# encapsulation dot1q 3
XXYYinc2(config­if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
B. XXYYinc2 (config)# router rip
XXYYinc2 (config­router)# network 192.168.5.0
XXYYinc2 (config­router)# network 192.168.3.0
XXYYinc2 (config­router)# network 192.168.8.0
C. XXYYinc1# vlan database
XXYYinc1 (vlan)# vtp v2­mode
XXYYinc1 (vlan)# vtp password XXYYinc
XXYYinc1 (vlan)# vtp server
D. XXYYinc1 (config)# interface fastethernet 0/15
XXYYinc1 (config­if)# switchport mode trunk
XXYYinc1 (config­if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Answer: A

10. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the TIS­PC1 and TIS­PC2 with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

A. The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
B. The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
C. The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
D. The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
Answer: A, C

11. A XXYYinc network administrator wants to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 640-802 dumps to the server at 192.168.1.5. What command should be issued to accomplish this task?
A. access­list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access­list 101 permit ip any any
B. access­list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access­list 101 permit ip any any
C. access­list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access­list 1 permit ip any any
D. access­list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23
access­list 1 permit ip any any
Answer: A

12. Part of the XXYYinc network is shown below:

In this XXYYinc network segment,the following ACL was configured on the S0/0 interface of router XXYYinc2 in the outbound direction:
access­list 101 deny tcp 192.168.15.32 0.0.0.15 any eq telnet access­list 101 permit ip any any Which two packets, if routed to the interface, will be denied?(Choose two)
A. source ip address:, 192.168.15.49 destination port: 23
B. source ip address:, 192.168.15.41 destination port: 21
C. source ip address:, 192.168.15.37 destination port: 21
D. source ip address:, 192.168.15.36 destination port: 23
E. source ip address: 192.168.15.46; destination port: 23
Answer: D, E

13. What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two.)
A. packet switching
B. microsegmentation of broadcast domains
C. path selection
D. VLAN membership assignment
Answer: A, C

14. On a network of one XXYYinc department,there are four PCs connected to a switch,as shown in the following figure:

After the switch XXYYinc1 restarts, XXYYincA ( the host on the left ) sends the first frame to XXYYincC (the host on the right ).what the first thing should the switch do ?
A. XXYYinc1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table.
B. XXYYinc1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table.
C. XXYYinc1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table.
D. XXYYinc1 will add 000B.DB95.2EE9 to the switching table.
Answer: C

15. Network topology exhibit:

Output exhibit:
C:\arp ­a
Interface:192.168.1.95 ­­­ 0×2
Internet Address Phycical Address Type
192.168.1.254 00­60­0f­2e­14­c6 dynamic
You work as a network technician at XXYYinc and you issued the arp ­a command from a host named
XXYYincA as shown above.
The user of host XXYYincA wants to ping the DSL modem/router at 192.168.1.254. Based on the Host XXYYincA ARP table that is shown in the exhibit, what will host XXYYincA do?
A. send a unicast ARP packet to the DSL modem/router
B. send unicast ICMP packets to the DSL modem/router
C. send Layer 3 broadcast packets to which the DSL modem/router responds
D. send a Layer 2 broadcast that is received by XXYYinc2, the switch, and the DSL modem/router
Answer: B

16. Study the exhibit carefully. Each of these four XXYYinc switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made.
Which switch will have only one forwarding interface?

A. TIS­SA
B. TIS­SB
C. TIS­SC
D. TIS­SD
Answer: B

17. 802.1b is being utilized in the XXYYinc wireless network. Which spread spectrum technology does the 802.1b standard define for operation in this network?
A. IR
B. DSSS
C. FHSS
D. DSSS and FHSS
E. IR, FHSS, and DSSS
Answer: B

18. Part of the XXYYinc OSPF network is shown below:

Configuration exhibit:
XXYYinc1 Routing Commands: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0 router ospf 1
network 172.16.100.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 172.16.100.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 172.16.100.128 0.0.0.31 area 0 default­information originate
You work as a network technician at XXYYinc.com. Study the exhibits carefully. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on Router XXYYinc2. How will the default route configured on XXYYinc1 affect the operation of XXYYinc2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router XXYYinc2 will be dropped immediately.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router XXYYinc1 will be dropped.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router XXYYinc2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on XXYYinc1.
D. The network directly connected to a router XXYYinc2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.28,and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router XXYYinc2 will be directed to XXYYinc1. XXYYinc1 will then send that packet back to XXYYinc2 and a routing loop will occur.
Answer: E

19. Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Answer: A

20. Which one of the 640-802 study guide following statements is the media access method that Gigabit Ethernet uses?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. token passing
D. point­to­point
Answer: A

21. Part of the XXYYinc network is shown below:

A host on the LAN is accessing an FTP server across the Internet. Which of the following addresses could appear as a source address for the packets forwarded by the router to the destination server?
A. 10.10.0.1
B. 199.99.9.33
C. 199.99.9.57
D. 200.2.2.17
Answer: C

22. Refer to the topology and configuration information shown in the graphic. The TIS­R1 has been configured to provide communication between the VLANs. Which IOS commands are required to configure switch port fa0/1 to establish a link with router TIS­R1 using the IEEE standard protocol? (Choose three.)

A. Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
B. Switch(config­if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
C. Switch(config­if)# switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config­if)# switchport access vlan 1
Answer: A, B, C

23. The XXYYinc frame relay network is shown below:

which statement describes DLCI 17?
A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between XXYYinc2 and XXYYinc3.
B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on XXYYinc2. It cannot be used on XXYYinc3 or XXYYinc1.
C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by XXYYinc2 to describe a PVC to XXYYinc3.
D. DLCI 17 describes the dial­up circuit from XXYYinc2 and XXYYinc3 to the service provider.
Answer: C

24. It is known that the OSI model has seven layers. Can you tell me at which layers of the OSI model WANs operate? (Choose two.)
A. datalink layer
B. session layer
C. transport layer
D. physical layer
Answer: A, D

25. The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands the XXYYinc network administrator must configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch TIS­S1 to meet this policy? (Choose two.)
A. TIS­S1(config­if)# switchport port­security maximum 1
B. TIS­S1(config)# mac­address­table secure
C. TIS­S1(config)# access­list 10 permit ip host
D. TIS­S1(config­if)# switchport port­security violation shutdown
E. TIS­S1(config­if)# ip access­group 10
Answer: A, D

26. You work as a network technician at XXYYinc.com. Study the exhibit carefully Based on the output shown below, what should you do to allow the XXYYinc workstations connected to the fastethernet0/0 interface to obtain an IP Address?

A. Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration
B. Add access­list 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C. Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

27. Study the exhibit carefully. NAT has been used for converting all the IP addresses on the internal network to the single address 128.107.1.1 as traffic is routed toward the Internet. Which of these statements accurately describes what will happen when the IP traffic returns from the Internet destined for hosts on the internal network?

A. TIS­ER will require a route to 172.16.0.0/16 in its routing table to properly direct the traffic.
B. TIS­IR will convert the source IP addresses of all packets before forwarding them onto the internal network.
C. TIS­ER will translate the destination IP addresses of all packets before forwarding them to TIS­IR.
D. TIS­ER can use the directly connected interface on the 128.107.1.0/27 network to route return traffic to its originators.
Answer: D

28. Study the exhibit carefully. A XXYYinc network engineer needs to configure the switches and TIS­R in the graphic so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. F
Answer: C, D

29. Two XXYYinc routers are connected as shown below:

XXYYinc1 configuration exhibit:

XXYYinc2 configuration exhibit:

Two routers named XXYYinc1 and XXYYinc2 are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The XXYYinc1 router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the XXYYinc2 router that is causing the lack of connectivity?
A. A loopback is not set.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
Answer: B

30. Part of the XXYYinc switched LAN is shown below:

Based on the information show above, which device will provide the spanning­tree designated port role for the XXYYinc network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch XXYYincA
B. Hub XXYYincE
C. Switch XXYYincC
D. Switch XXYYincB
Answer: C

2. Which of the following allows an SY0-201 attacker to manipulate files by using the least significant bit(s) to secretly embed data?
A.Steganography
B.Worm
C.Trojan horse
D.VirusWBerlin Sans
Answer: A

3. Which of the following type of attacks would allow an attacker to capture HTTP requests and send back a spoofed page?
A.Teardrop
B.TCP/IP hijacking
C.Phishing
D.Replay WBerlin Sans
Answer: B

4. How should a company test the integrity of its backup data?
A.By conducting another backup
B.By using software to recover deleted files
C.By restoring part of the backup
D.By reviewing the written proceduresWBerlin Sans
Answer: C

5. Which of following can BEST be used to determine the topology of a network and discover unknown devices?
A.Vulnerability scanner
B.NIPS
C.Protocol analyzer
D.Network mapperWBerlin Sans
Answer: D

6. When should a technician perform penetration testing?
A.When the technician suspects that weak passwords exist on the network
B.When the technician is trying to guess passwords on a network
C.When the technician has permission from the owner of the network
D.When the technician is war driving and trying to gain accessWBerlin Sans
Answer: C

7. An administrator has implemented a new SMTP service on a server. A public IP address translates to the internal SMTP server. The administrator notices many sessions to the server, and gets notification that the servers public IP address is now reported in a spam realtime
block list. Which of the following is wrong with the server?
A.SMTP open relaying is enabled.
B.It does not have a spam filter.
C.The amount of sessions needs to be limited.
D.The public IP address is incorrect.WBerlin Sans
Answer: A

8. Which of the following is MOST efficient for encrypting large amounts of data?
A.Hashing algorithms
B.Symmetric key algorithms
C.Asymmetric key algorithms
D.ECC algorithmsWBerlin Sans
Answer: B

9. Which of the following is a reason why a company should disable the SSID broadcast of the wireless access points?
A.Rogue access points
B.War driving
C.Weak encryption
D.Session hijackingWBerlin Sans
Answer: B

10. Which of the following BEST SY0-201 dumps describes ARP?
A.Discovering the IP address of a device from the MAC address
B.Discovering the IP address of a device from the DNS name
C.Discovering the MAC address of a device from the IP address
D.Discovering the DNS name of a device from the IP addressWBerlin Sans
Answer: C

11. Which of the following would be BEST to use to apply corporate security settings to a device?
A.A security patch
B.A security hotfix
C.An OS service pack
D.A security templateWBerlin Sans
Answer: D

12. A small call center business decided to install an email system to facilitate communications in the office. As part of the upgrade the vendor offered to supply antimalware software for a cost of $5,000 per year. The IT manager read there was a 90% chance each year that workstations would be compromised if not adequately protected. If workstations are compromised it will take three hours to restore services for the 30 staff. Staff members in the call center are paid $90 per hour. If the antimalware software is purchased, which of the following is the expected net savings?
A.$900
B.$2,290
C.$2,700
D.$5,000b
Answer: B

13. Which of the following is the main objective of steganography?
A.Message digest
B.Encrypt information
C.Hide information
D.Data integrityWBerlin Sans
Answer: C

14. Which of the following would allow for secure key exchange over an unsecured network without a preshared key?
A.3DES
B.AES
C.DHECC
D.MD5WBerlin Sans
Answer: C

15. Which of the following improves security in a wireless system?
A.IP spoofing
B.MAC filtering
C.SSID spoofing
D.Closed networkWBerlin Sans
Answer: B

16. A user wants to SY0-201 study guide implement secure LDAP on the network. Which of the following port numbers secure LDAP use by default?
A.53
B.389
C.443
D.636WBerlin Sans
Answer: D

17. On which of the following is a security technician MOST likely to find usernames?
A.DNS logs
B.Application logs
C.Firewall logs
D.DHCP logsWBerlin Sans
Answer: B

18. How many keys are utilized with asymmetric cryptography?
A.One
B.Two
C.Five
D.SevenWBerlin Sans
Answer: B

19. During a risk assessment it is discovered that only one system administrator is assigned several tasks critical to continuity of operations. It is recommended to cross train other system administrators to perform these tasks and mitigate which of the following risks?
A.DDoS
B.Privilege escalation
C.Disclosure of PII
D.Single point of failureWBerlin Sans
Answer: D

20. Which of the following network filtering devices will rely on signature updates to be effective?
A.Proxy server
B.Firewall
C.NIDS
D.HoneynetWBerlin Sans
Answer: C

2. Documenting change levels and revision information is most useful for:
A. theft tracking
B. security audits
C. disaster recovery
D. license enforcement
Answer: C

3. A recent audit shows that a user logged into a server with their user account and executed a program. The user then performed activities only available to an administrator. This is an example of what type of an attack?
A. Trojan horse
B. privilege escalation
C. subseven back door
D. security policy removal
Answer: B

4. Notable security organizations often SY0-101 recommend only essential services be provided by a particular host, and any unnecessary services be disabled. Which of the following does NOT represent a reason supporting this recommendation?
A. Each additional service increases the risk of compromising the host, the services that run on the host, and potential clients of these services.
B. Different services may require different hardware, software, or a different discipline of administration.
C. When fewer services and applications are running on a specific host, fewer log entries and fewer interactions between different services are expected, which simplifies the analysis and maintenance of the system from a security point of view.
D. If a service is not using a well known port, firewalls will not be able to disable access to this port, and an administrator will not be able to restrict access to this service.
Answer: D

5. Which of the following is a technical solution that supports high availability?
A. UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
B. anti-virus solution
C. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks)
D. firewall
Answer: C

6. In order for a user to obtain a certificate from a trusted CA (Certificate Authority), the user must present proof of identity and a:
A. private key
B. public key
C. password
D. Kerberos key
Answer: B

7. In the context of wireless networks, WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) was designed to:
A. provide the same level of security as a wired LAN (Local Area Network)
B. provide a collision preventive method of media access
C. provide a wider access area than that of wired LANs (Local Area Network)
D. allow radio frequencies to penetrate walls
Answer: A

8. A primary drawback to using shared storage clustering for high availability and disaster recovery is:
A. the creation of a single point of vulnerability
B. the increased network latency between the host computers and the RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) subsystem
C. the asynchronous writes which must be used to flush the server cache
D. the higher storage capacity required by the RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) subsystem
Answer: A

9. What are access decisions based on in a MAC (Mandatory Access Control) environment?
A. access control lists
B. ownership
C. group membership
D. sensitivity labels
Answer: D

10. Packet sniffing can be used to obtain username and password information in clear text from which one of the following?
A. SSH (Secure Shell)
B. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
C. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
D. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer)
Answer: C

11. When securing a FTP (File Transfer Protocol) server, what can be done to ensure that only authorized users can access the server?
A. allow blind authentication
B. disable anonymous authentication
C. redirect FTP (File Transfer Protocol) to another port
D. only give the address to users that need access
Answer: B

12. Asymmetric cryptography ensures that:
A. encryption and authentication can take place without sharing private keys
B. encryption of the secret key is performed with the fastest algorithm available
C. encryption occurs only when both parties have been authenticated
D. encryption factoring is limited to the session key
Answer: A

13. Which of the following SY0-101 dumps media types is most immune to RF (Radio Frequency) eavesdropping?
A. coaxial cable
B. fiber optic cable
C. twisted pair wire
D. unbounded
Answer: B

14. Access controls that are created and administered by the data owner are considered:
A. MACs (Mandatory Access Control)
B. RBACs (Role Based Access Control)
C. LBACs (List Based Access Control)
D. DACs (Discretionary Access Control)
Answer: D

15. An administrator notices that an e-mail server is currently relaying e-mail (including spam) for any e-mail server requesting relaying. Upon further investigation the administrator notices the existence of /etc/mail/relay domains. What modifications should the administrator make to the relay domains file to prevent relaying for non-explicitly named domains?
A. move the .* entry to the bottom of the relay domains file and restart the e-mail process
B. move the .* entry to the top of the relay domains file and restart the e-mail process
C. delete the .* entry in the relay domains file and restart the e-mail process
D. delete the relay domains file from the /etc/mail folder and restart the e-mail process
Answer: C

16. Providing false information about the source of an attack is known as:
A. aliasing
B. spoofing
C. flooding
D. redirecting
Answer: B

17. The term “due care” best relates to:
A. policies and procedures intended to reduce the likelihood of damage or injury
B. scheduled activity in a comprehensive preventative maintenance program
C. techniques and methods for secure shipment of equipment and supplies
D. user responsibilities involved when sharing passwords in a secure environment
Answer: A

18. A high profile company has been receiving a high volume of attacks on their public web site. The network administrator wants to be able to collect information on the attacker(s) so legal action can be taken. What should be implemented?
A. a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone)
B. a honey pot
C. a firewall
D. a new subnet
Answer: B

19. Many intrusion detection systems look for known patterns or ______ to aid in detecting attacks.
A. viruses
B. signatures
C. hackers
D. malware
Answer: B

20. After installing a new operating system, what configuration changes should be implemented?
A. create application user accounts
B. rename the guest account
C. rename the administrator account, disable the guest accounts
D. create a secure administrator account
Answer: C

21. In order to establish a secure connection between headquarters and a branch office over a public network, the router at each location should be configured to use IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) in _____ mode.
A. secure
B. tunnel
C. transport
D. data link
Answer: B

22. What type of authentication may be needed when a stored key and a memorized password are not strong enough and additional layers of security are needed?
A. mutual
B. multi-factor
C. biometric
D. certificate
Answer: B

23. What technology was originally designed to decrease broadcast traffic but is also beneficial in reducing the likelihood of having information compromised by sniffers?
A. VPN (Virtual Private Network)
B. DMZ (Demilitarized Zone)
C. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)
D. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service)
Answer: C

24. A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) SY0-101 study guide typically contains:
A. a customer account database
B. staff workstations
C. a FTP (File Transfer Protocol) server
D. a SQL (Structured Query Language) based database server
Answer: C

25. What kind of attack are hashed passwords vulnerable to?
A. man in the middle
B. dictionary or brute force
C. reverse engineering
D. DoS (Denial of Service)
Answer: B

26. Controlling access to information systems and associated networks is necessary for the preservation of their:
A. authenticity, confidentiality, integrity and availability
B. integrity and availability
C. confidentiality, integrity and availability
D. authenticity, confidentiality and availability
Answer: C

27. A collection of information that includes login, file access, other various activities, and actual or attempted legitimate and unauthorized security violations is a(n):
A. audit
B. ACL (Access Control List)
C. audit trail
D. syslog
Answer: C

28. What transport protocol and port number does SSH (Secure Shell) use?
A. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 22
B. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 69
C. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 179
D. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 17
Answer: A

29. What statement is most true about viruses and hoaxes?
A. Hoaxes can create as much damage as a real virus.
B. Hoaxes are harmless pranks and should be ignored.
C. Hoaxes can help educate users about a virus.
D. Hoaxes carry a malicious payload and can be destructive.
Answer: A

30. What is the greatest benefit to be gained through the use of S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)? The ability to:
A. encrypt and digitally sign e-mail messages
B. send anonymous e-mails
C. send e-mails with a return receipt
D. expedite the delivery of e-mail
Answer: A

2. What is a feature of the HP Proactive 24 Service?
A. fixed time call-to-repair
B. 2-hour response time for software issues
C. education services
D. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: B

3. What features 9L0-007 are included in both HP Support Plus and HP Support Plus 24? (Select two.)
A. extended business hours coverage
B. annual OS patch analysis
C. escalation management
D. Fix Time/Call-to-Repair
E. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: AC

4.Which memory protection technology can detect 2-bit errors in a single byte and correct single-bit errors?
A. Automatic Parity Checking
B. Battery Backed Write Cache
C. Error Checking and Correcting
D. Error Detecting and Correction
Answer: C

5. What is the benefit of SAS connectors?
A. SAS drives can be daisy-chained during configuration.
B. SAS connectors enable additional diagnostic features.
C. SAS uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as SATA.
D. SAS host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
Answer: C

6. What is the advantage of the iSCSI technology?
A. has no distance limitation
B. uses same data transmission protocol as Fibre Channel
C. provides support for ESCON protocol
D. is better than Fibre Channel 9L0-007 dumps technology for large database transfers and very large input/output operations
Answer: A

7. Which technology enables Fibre Channel to communicate between SAN facilities over IP networks?
A. point-to-point Fibre Channel
B. extended Fibre Channel
C. storage tunneling
D. long distance macro bending
Answer: C

8. Which ProLiant series servers are described as simple and affordable 2-processor, rack mount servers deployable for networking, file-and-print, and shared Internet access?
A. 100 series
B. 200 series
C. 300 series
D. 500 series
Answer: A

9. What are components of Insight Control 9L0-007 study guide Environment (ICE) for ML/DL servers? (Select three.)
A. HP Automatic Server Recovery
B. HP ProLiant Essentials Virtual Machine Management Pack
C. HP ProLiant Essentials Rapid Deployment Pack
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machine License
E. HP iLO Advanced Pack
Answer: BCE

10. Which diagnostic tools are specific to ProLiant 100 Series? (Select two.)
A. Watchdog Timer
B. Automatic Server Recovery
C. Insight Diagnostics
D. Integrated Management Log
E. Server Board Management Controller (BMC)
Answer: AE

A. Scope, issues, and risks.
B. Risk, schedule, and quality.
C. Cost, schedule, and quality.
D. Overhead, direct cost, and expenses.
E. Design, engineering, and implementation.

Answer: C

NO 2:
What is the core function of a project manager?

A. Project integration
B. Client interface
C. Systems design
D. Quality assurance
E. Facilitating meetings

Answer: A

NO 3:
Which two methods are PK0-002 valid for developing project task duration estimates? (Choose two)

A. Historical data
B. Expert judgement
C. Value engineering
D. Stochastic estimating
E. Bottoms-up estimating

Answer: A, B

NO 4:
Which component is used to estimate resource requirements, activity durations, and costs?

A. Project plan
B. Implementation plan
C. Business requirements
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer: D

NO 5:
Exhibit:

Task A is dependent on the completion of Task B. Task C is dependent on the starting of Task B. Place the tasks in the order in which they will start.

Answer:

NO 6:
The firm you are working with, XXYYinc.com, has a number of stakeholders with a wide variety of backgrounds. The stakeholders do not agree on the objectives for the project.
What is the first thing you should do in order to resolve the differences the stakeholders have with respect to the project objectives?

A. Conduct a series of meetings with all stakeholders.
B. Conduct a brainstorming session with all stakeholders.
C. Prepare and deliver a presentation on objective development to all stakeholders.
D. Conduct interviews with each stakeholder to understand which objectives they feel are critical.

Answer: D

NO 7:
The project is well under way and you notice that the enthusiastic support of an executive stakeholder has diminished. You believe the executive now has doubt about the project.
Which three abilities would best help a project manager resolve this situation? (Choose one)

A. The ability to manage team resources.
B. The ability to identify the areas of doubts.
C. The ability to develop meaningful status reports.
D. The ability to act without creating negative impact.

Answer: B

NO 8:
Your project team has five developers. Developers 1 has a personal issue with the work schedule of Developer 2, and refuses to work overtime unless Developer 2 also works overtime. All team members, except Developer 2 work five days a week, averaging between 45 to 52 hours per week. Developer 2 works four days a week, and averages 48 hours per week.
Your project is 70 percent complete, and is three percent behind schedule. Everyone met their task duration goals up to this point, but the project has been slightly delayed by an external vendor. If everyone works together you think you can make up the slippage. You worry that Developer 1′s issue will cause the project to be delayed further. The rest of the group is working well together and Developer 2 is not aware of the issue. What should you do to resolve the issue?

A. Have the two team members get together and work out their issues.
B. Talk with Developer 1 to find out the real issues and help him work on these issues.
C. See if Developer 2 can change this work schedule until the project is back on track.
D. Conduct a team building process with all the team members and recognize each of them for their accomplishments.

Answer: B

NO 9:
You project plan designates several development phases. Some of the phases overlap. Your plan indicates where executive management involvement should occur. Executive management involvement includes the sign-off upon completion of a phase and approval for the start of the next phase. The plan indicates that the executive management meeting should take place in ten days. You are aware that the current phase will not be completed for 20 days. You are three percent ahead of budget in terms of cost, and one percent ahead of budget in terms of time. These figures are in-line with the variance allowance set for the phase by the executive management at the inception of the phase. What should you do?

A. Reduce the estimates of work outstanding to minimize the reported overrun in time and cost.
B. Move some of the incomplete tasks into a later phase as there is some slack in the plan that could be utilized.
C. Speak to the executive on the executive management and explain the need to delay the executive management meeting by 10 days.
D. Hold the executive management meeting in the previously appointed date so there is no inconvenience to the executive management members.

Answer: C

NO 10:
The ratio of Budgeted PK0-002 dumps Cost of Work Performed to Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWP/BCWS) is called ______.

A. Critical Ratio (CR)
B. Cost Variance (CV)
C. Cost Performance Index (CPI)
D. Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

Answer: D

NO 11:
What would most improve the project development process?

A. Supplementing the budget in mission critical areas.
B. Adding additional staff with special expertise in key areas.
C. Utilizing a standard, well-defined project development methodology.
D. Extending the overall timeline for the project to ensure adequate time for testing.

Answer: C

NO 12:
One of the developers on your project disagrees with the current corporate development standards, and believes an alternative approach to the task is superior. You do not have the technical expertise to make a valid judgment as to whether the developer has a better approach. What should you do?

A. Allow the developer to implement the recommendation for the proposed new approach.
B. Tell the developer that adherence to standards is compulsory and that therefore the corporate standards must be followed.
C. Hold a project team developer’s meeting to allow the team to decide if the newly recommended approach should be adopted for the project.
D. Meet with the person in charge of the corporate development standards and with subject matter experts to obtain a decision on changing the standards, or obtain an exemption from the standards for the project.

Answer: D

NO 13:
When you can be certain that the statement of work document is complete?

A. After the system users, managers, and sponsors have reviewed and approved the work document.
B. After the project sponsor has accepted the statement of work, and the project is within the proposed budget.
C. When consensus has been reached by the project manager and the sponsor that project criteria are reasonable.
D. After the project manager and the sponsor understand and agree that project objectives will be met by the statement of work.

Answer: D

NO 14:
A charge for the rental of a room that will be used for a project meeting is an example of what kind of cost?

A. Unavoidable
B. Fixed
C. Variable
D. Unforeseen

Answer: B

NO 15:
Formal stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables occurs during which process?

A. Scope verification
B. Project scheduling
C. Quality checking
D. Project budget creation

Answer: A

NO 16:
Which will be detailed in the project planning document(s) with respects to the project manager?

A. How performance will be evaluated
B. Technical certifications held
C. Vacation schedule
D. Names of the project team members

Answer: A

NO 17:
Which of the following is an effective outcome of a change management process?

A. Minimizes productivity loss during the project.
B. Strictly prohibits any change of scope during the entire project.
C. Encourages frequent change during the project life cycle.
D. Balances project risk and cost

Answer: A

NO 18:
An organization is faced with choosing from a number of projects and creates an evaluation matrix. Which of the following criteria is likely to be the LEAST important?

A. Cost
B. Degree of Change within business
C. Alignment to business needs
D. Training

Answer: D

NO 19:
Project sponsors have the greatest influence on the scope, quality, duration and cost of a project during which phase?

A. Planning phase
B. Execution phase
C. Close Out phase
D. Development phase

Answer: A

NO 20:
Which of the following groups would BEST define who the stakeholders are in a project?

A. The project team members, the executive staff of your company, the client’s executive staff, and the functional department heads of your company.
B. The project team members, sponsors, the executive staff of your company, and the client’s executive staff.
C.The project team members, suppliers, and representatives from the client’s company who will use the deliverable.
D. The project team members, sponsors, suppliers, representatives from the client’s company who will use the deliverable, and your company’s functional department heads.
Answer: D

NO 21:
What is one mission of the project steering committee?

A. Provide project management support.
B. Provide assistance with completion of tasks.
C. Provide oversight and governance.
D. Provide cost benefit analysis for the project manager.

Answer: D

NO 22:
Which of the following is LEAST important for management to provide to the project?

A. Periodic corporate communication on project milestone successes.
B. Frequent informal project checkpoint meetings with stakeholders on project status and progress.
C. Detailed hands-on consulting assistance to the project team. D. Confirmation of alignment of project within business plan.

Answer: C

NO 23:
A Forcing conflict resolution mode is characterized by:

A. A give-and-take attitude.
B. De-emphasizing areas of difference.
C. Retreating or withdrawing from an actual or potential disagreement.
D. A win-lose scenario.

Answer: D

NO 24:
Which of the PK0-002 study guide following graphical presentations of a project plan is MOST appropriate for presenting to upper management?

A. CPM (Critical Path Method)
B. Gantt – Bar chart
C. PDM (Precedence Diagram Method)
D. PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)

Answer: B

NO 25:
Which assumption would be the MOST important in creating a high level budget?

A. The use of open source programming.
B. The members of a project team.
C. The quality plan.
D. The hourly rate for project members.

Answer: D

NO 26:
“Fast-tracking” a project means:

A. That the project relies on a “cookie cutter” approach, duplicating a prior, successful project plan.
B. Aggressively managing the critical path during the execution phase of the project.
C. That project activities which are normally done in a series are done in parallel.
D. Replacing team members with higher quality to finish the project ahead of schedule.

Answer: C

NO 27:
The column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time is called a:

A. Resource list
B. Resource responsibility chart
C. Resource histogram
D. Resource allocation

Answer: C

NO 28:
A checkpoint review in the project plan indicates a:

A. Status report is due.
B. Go / no-go decisions.
C. Change control meeting.
D. Planned date for user sign-off.

Answer: B

NO 29:
What is a reason for reviewing the user requirements document with the client?

A. To gain the client’s acceptance of the detailed design.
B. To verify mutual understanding of project resources.
C. To verify mutual understanding of the detailed project plan.
D. To verify mutual understanding of targeted product performance.
E. To verify understanding of tests that will be done after the product is completed.

Answer: D

NO 30:
The first step for initiating the planning process of a project is to:

A. Establish a project schedule.
B. Plan the scope of the project.
C. Identify project risks.
D. Prepare the project budget.

Answer: B

2. An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

3. The customer has a PD1-001 dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine. Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

5. Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

6. Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

7. How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

8. When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

9. A customer has installed PD1-001 dumps
a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

10. A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

11. In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

12. During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

13. Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

14. The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

15. A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

16. The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

17. Which of the following PD1-001 study guide is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

18. Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

19. Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

20. A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

2. Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?
A.WAP
B.Hub
C.Switch
D.Router
Answer: B

3. Which of the N10-004 following does a star ring topology use for data transfer?
A.CSMA/CD
B.CSMA/CA
C.CHAP
D.Token passing
Answer: D

4. On a Windows network, users are reporting that they cannot access any network resources. The users can ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The file server is offline.
B.The DNS server is not resolving correctly.
C.The DHCP server is not assigning correct IP addresses.
D.The domain controller is not responding.
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is a valid IP address in the public addressing scheme?
A.10.20.1.1
B.168.192.10.1
C.233.10.20.1
D.172.20.10.1
Answer: B

6. A computer configured to use DHCP cannot locate a DHCP server. Automatic Private IP Address
(APIPA) will assign which of the following addresses?
A.172.16.1.25
B.169.254.1.25
C.10.16.1.25
D.192.168.1.25
Answer: B

7. A user reports that when the phone rings in their house the wireless on their laptops becomes
disconnected. Which of the following BEST describes the issue?
A.The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router
B.The cordless phones are 5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless
C.The cordless phones are 2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless
D.The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ11 jack
Answer: C

8. For an enterprise to use one of the reserved private IP address ranges, as best practice they should coordinate with:
A.their legal department.
B.IANA.
C.IEEE.
D.their IT department.
Answer: D

9. Which of the following utilities will produce the results printed below?
Tracing route to 172.30.0.78 over a maximum of 30 hops
1 <1 ms <1 ms172.30.0.78
A.tracert
B.ping
C.arp
D.netstat
Answer: A

10. A network N10-004 dumps technician is installing a small wireless network. A requirement is that individual users must authenticate using usernames and passwords. Which of the following technologies would support users authenticating with encrypted usernames and passwords?
A.WPA TLS
B.WPA PEAP
C.64bit WEP
D.128bit WEP
Answer: B

11. Which of the following cables would a technician make in order to identify a physical interface
problem?
A.Serial
B.Loopback
C.Rollover
D.Console
Answer: B

12. A second network card in a server that activates if the primary card fails is an example of which of the following network performance optimization?
A.Load balancing
B.QoS
C.High availability
D.Fault tolerance
Answer: D

13. A user reports that the wireless network is slow and is able to see and access shared folders that are unknown to the user. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The SSID broadcast is disabled.
B.Wireless router is improperly configured.
C.The user is connecting to the wrong SSID.
D.The wireless NIC is defective.
Answer: C

14. Which of the following security mitigation techniques is the MOST effective against zeroday
attacks?
A.Update antivirus definitions
B.MAC filtering
C.Effective security policies
D.User awareness training
Answer: D

15. Which of the following network protocols is used to ensure consistent time across network devices on the domain?
A.NTP
B.FTP
C.RTP
D.IGMP
Answer: A

16. Which of the following is resistant to crosstalk?
A.1000BaseT
B.10GBaseCX
C.100BaseFX
D.STP
Answer: C

17. A network administrator has been receiving work orders about poor voice quality crossing a branch T1. The cause is determined to be users running high bandwidth file sharing applications across the T1 sending large packets delaying the smaller voice streams. Which of the following would improve voice quality?
A.Configure traffic N10-004 study guide
shaping to reduce the bandwidth available to the file sharing application.
B.Configure a separate VLAN for the IP phones.
C.Install a content caching proxy at the branch to reduce inbound WAN traffic.
D.Upgrade switches to provide higher bandwidth ports for workstations and IP phones.
Answer: A

18. Which of the following devices is used to connect a WAN to a LAN?
A.Basic router
B.Basic switch
C.Bridge
D.Repeater
Answer: A

19. A new segment needs to be added to a network to provide access for 64 servers. Which of the
following subnets will provide the needed access and still conserve IP addresses?
A.192.168.1.0/26
B.192.168.1.0/23
C.192.168.1.0/24
D.192.168.1.0/25
Answer: D

20. PPTP is a combination of which of the following protocols? (Select TWO).
A.PPP
B.TCP/IP
C.TCP
D.POP3
E.PPPoE
Answer: AB

2. Which of the following methods of user authentication is the MOST secure?
A. CHAP
B. Kerberos
C. TACACS
D. EAP
Answer: B

3. 802.11 security is defined in:
A. 802.11a.
B. 802.11b.
C. 802.11g.
D. 802.11i.
Answer: D

4. Which of the N10-003 following is a selfassigned address based on APIPA?
A. 169.255.1.0
B. 169.254.1.1
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is true regarding NetWare Directory Services (NDS) configuration?
A. Remote users can access the tree through dialin connections.
B. Mobile users do not require changing the NDS name context.
C. Remote users do not require a special NDS object entry.
D. There are no differences between mobile users and remote users.
Answer: A

6. A user connects to the companys intranet server via a VPN connection from a small office / home office (SOHO) using the broadband service. One day, the user cannot successfully connect to the VPN and receives an error message that states “Username and password are invalid on the domain.” Which of the following should be done to correct this problem?
A. Call the corporate help desk to have the VPN server rebooted
B. Reenter the username and password in the VPN connection and reconnect
C. Call the broadband Internet provider to replace the SOHO router with a newer model
D. Ping the corporate VPN server to ensure it is online
Answer: B

7. When one connection to a host fails in a full mesh network, which of the following is true?
A. All hosts can communicate.
B. No hosts can communicate.
C. Half of the hosts will lose communication.
D. Only the two hosts between the failed connection will lose communication.
Answer: A

8. Which of the following network services is responsible for mapping names to IP addresses?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. IMAP4
D. Telnet
Answer: B

9. Which of the following would be considered a routing protocol? (Select TWO).
A. OSPF
B. DHCP
C. SMTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: AE

10. Which of the following is STP BEST identified by under the cable sheath?
A. Number of twists in wires
B. Number of wires
C. Lubricant
D. Foil
Answer: D

11. Ensuring that data is transmitted securely over an IP network is the main purpose of:
A. Telnet.
B. FTP.
C. SIP.
D. TLS.
Answer: D

12. A user states that they cannot access a network shared drive. The technician has verified that the clients network cable is good. The IP address of the machine is 169.254.10.15. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. The WINS server is not resolving names properly.
B. The DNS server is not resolving names.
C. The DHCP server is out of IP address leases.
D. The hosts file is corrupted.
Answer: C

13. A user has a small network of four computers that they want to connect to a single cable modem. Which of the following devices would allow the user to do this?
A. Four port switch
B. Four port wireless router
C. Four port WAP
D. Four port hub
Answer: B

14. Which of the N10-003 dumps following are valid public IPv4 addresses? (Select TWO).
A. 10.2.127.220/16
B. 127.0.0.1/24
C. 212.2.17.54/16
D. 9.2.128.254/8
E. 127.2.126.213/24
Answer: CD

15. Which of the following network protocols is needed to ensure that users can type in a FQDN instead of the IP address?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. WINS
D. IMAP4
Answer: A

16. An administrator is in charge of several remote servers in Japan. Users call and complain they cannot connect to the company’s resources located on those servers. Which of the following commands would allow the administrator to verify the servers are running?
A. ping
B. netstat
C. nbtstat
D. telnet
Answer: A

17. Which of the following is the MOST common pinout configuration used when crimping RJ45
connectors?
A. UTP
B. T568A/B
C. STP
D. IEEE 802.5
Answer: B

18. A technician is installing a basic router for a SOHO network. After installing the router the PCs
connected to it are not able to acquire an IP address. Which of the following did the technician fail to configure correctly?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. WINS
D. NAT
Answer: A

19. Routing convergence time is which of the following?
A. Time required for a VPN connection to occur
B. Time required by protocols to update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred
C. Time required for an IDS to detect suspicious software
D. Time required by switch ports to update their link status and transition to the forwarding state
Answer: B

20. A second network card in a server that activates if the primary card fails is an example of which of the following network performance optimization?
A. Load balancing
B. QoS
C. High availability
D. Fault tolerance
Answer: D

21. A technician notices that when trying to ping a workstation by network name the workstation does not reply back over the network. The workstation is part of the domain and is able to get to the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. Faulty cable on the workstation
B. Wrong host name on the workstation
C. Wrong WINS on the workstation
D. Incorrect IP address assigned to the workstation
Answer: B

22. A network technician is installing a series of three access points to cover the entire wing of a building. Each access point has a wired connection and 802.11g is being used for the wireless transmission. Which of the following channels should be used for the access points?
A. Channels 1611
B. Channels 135
C. Channels 7111
D. Channels 246
Answer: A

23. Which of the following network devices operates on Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Bridge
Answer: A

24. Which of the following are forms of gigabit Ethernet that require the use of fiber optic cables? (Select THREE).
A. 1000BaseCX
B. 1000BaseTX
C. 1000BaseSX
D. 10BaseT
E. 1000BaseT
F. 1000BaseLX
Answer: ACF

25. Given the following routing table entries, which of the following will the nexthop
address be for a packet destined for the address 192.168.1.203?
Network Address Subnet Mask Next Hop Address
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 77.0.5.5
192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 66.40.90.121
192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 72.40.91.1
192.168.1.0 255.255.255.127 40.40.0.254
A. 77.0.5.5
B. 40.40.0.254
C. 66.40.90.121
D. 72.40.91.1
Answer: D

26. Which of the following is N10-003 study guide the default port for telnet?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: D

27. Which of the following protocols would a multilayer switch use to learn the IP address of a directly connected device?
A. ARP
B. BOOTP
C. InverseARP
D. DNS
Answer: A

28. A user is unable to connect to the network. A network technician is able to determine that there is a problem on the switch. All other users on that switch are able to connect successfully to the network. Which of the following is a probable cause?
A. Switching loop is occurring on the switch.
B. Wrong subnet mask on the switch.
C. Incorrect SNMP settings on the switch.
D. Port is misconfigured on the switch.
Answer: D

29. A network administrator of a company has many branch locations each using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols should be used?
A. IPv6
B. RIP
C. IGRP
D. RIPv2
Answer: D

30. Which of the following will list the destination MAC addresses?
A. ping
B. dig
C. nbtstat
D. arp
Answer: D

2. Which of the following IEEE standards applies to parallel data transmission?
A. IEEE 1394
B. IEEE 802.3
C. IEEE 802.11
D. IEEE 1284
Answer: D

3. After rightclicking on an applications shortcut icon and selecting Properties, which of the following will identify the location of the application?
A. Start In
B. Location
C. Shortcut key
D. Run
Answer: A

4. Making data appear to 220-602 come from somewhere other than the originating point is known as:
A. social engineering.
B. spoofing.
C. hacking.
D. cracking.
Answer: B

5. Which of the following can be used to prepare a disk image for duplication?
A. Copy
B. sysprep
C. xcopy
D. Shadow copy
Answer: B

6. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to troubleshoot a users network connectivity problem?
A. Run TRACERT from the users workstation.
B. Start with the Last Known Good Configuration and reboot the computer.
C. Replace the network interface card (NIC).
D. PING the users workstation.
Answer: D

7. Which of the following statements about cooling is true?
A. Adapter cards (e.g. modems) do not add to the heat generated in a computer case.
B. Bus mastering reduces the amount of heat generated inside a computer case.
C. Removing expansion slot covers can compromise cooling airflow design.
D. Periodic cleaning of the computer components inside the case has no effect on cooling efficiency.
Answer: C

8. A technician accesses a corporate users hard drive and notices that there are inappropriate images in their My Documents folder. Accessing this kind of material is a clear violation of company policy. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Confront the user and tell them to remove the material.
B. Backup the files and delete them from the users folder.
C. Inquire with the manager about policies and procedures.
D. Ignore the files, this is the users personal documents folder.
Answer: C

9. When a technician is moving a CRT monitor to another location, the monitor falls and breaks. Which of the following is the BEST way for a technician to clean up after this accident?
A. Use gloves and a broom to sweep the glass and debris into a rigid container.
B. Use a bucket of warm water and bleach to wash away loose debris before placing the glass in a trash can.
C. Individually pick up the glass and place into a plastic bag, do not sweep as this may cause dust to become airborne.
D. Use latex surgical gloves to place the glass into a plastic bag, sealing the bag after.
Answer: A

10. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?
A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.
B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.
C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.
D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.
Answer: B

11. A technician deploys a computer in a public library and wants to give the ability for a user without an account to use the computer with limited permission. Which of the following accounts would the technician setup?
A. Guest user account
B. Limited user account
C. Power user account
D. Administrator user account
Answer: A

12. A client has called with concerns that their computer problem has not been resolved by the onsite technician who has left. As the technicians supervisor, which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Tell the client that they will need to place another service call.
B. Ask the client if they would like to discuss their computer problems in more detail.
C. Tell the client that another technician will be sent out.
D. Inform the client that the problem will be resolved by the onsite technician at another time.
Answer: B

13. A technician cannot connect using Remote Desktop. Which of the following ports needs to be allowed in the firewall?
A. 23
B. 443
C. 8080
D. 3389
Answer: D

14. In which of the 220-602 dumps
following scenarios would MAC filtering be MOST effective as a part of wireless
security?
A. A public place where guests are free to access the wireless network.
B. A small office where a defined number of specific wireless devices are used.
C. A meeting room where various company users will access the wireless network during meetings.
D. An office where some users are unable to use WPA encryption due to older wireless cards so they use MAC filtering.
Answer: B

15. Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the Could not read from selected boot disk display upon booting?
A. Use recovery console and the bootcfg /rebuild command.
B. Use recovery console and the chkdsk command.
C. Use recovery console and the fixboot command.
D. Use recovery console and the fixmbr command.
Answer: A

16. The new security feature in Vista that prevents programs from running with escalated privileges is called:
A. User Account Control (UAC).
B. Windows Sidebar.
C. Windows Defender.
D. Aero Interface.
Answer: A

17. Which of the following utilities can be used to determine the current partition information on an attached storage device?
A. Add Hardware Wizard
B. Device Manager
C. Disk Management
D. Control Panel
Answer: C

18. A customer reports that their sound is not working. They state that the speakers worked previously. Which of the following should the technician check? (Select THREE).
A. Speakers are in regulatory compliance.
B. Speakers are on and the mute is off.
C. Ensure the speakers are on the Windows HCL.
D. Verify the system has enough hard drive space.
E. The audio driver is installed correctly.
F. Speakers are plugged into the correct jack.
Answer: BEF

19. A technician is attempting to get into the BIOS and they are being prompted for a password. Which of the following can clear the BIOS password? (Select TWO).
A. Pull the CMOS battery.
B. Pull the 20/24 pin connector from the main board.
C. Short the reset circuit near the RAM.
D. Use the appropriate jumper on main board.
E. Use the reset button on the front panel.
Answer: AD

20. Shortly after the Press CtrlAltDelete to login screen appears in Windows XP, a user gets the error One or more services failed to start. Which of the following locations could be accessed to identify the service that did not start and attempt to start the service manually? (Select TWO).
A. Computer Management
B. Services MMC Plugin
C. Event Log
D. Task Manager
E. System Configuration Utility
Answer: AB

21. A user states while saving files on the hard disk some of the data is inaccessible. The technician suspects a hard disk problem. Which of the following Windows utilities should be used to confirm hard disk issues?
A. chkdsk
B. dir
C. diskpart
D. format
Answer: A

22. Which of the following directory paths is the default profile folder for User1 in Windows 2000?
A. C:\Users\User1
B. C:\User1
C. C:\Documents and Settings\Users\User1
D. C:\Documents and Settings\User1
Answer: D

23. The fan on a power supply has stopped spinning completely due to dust collection. Which of the following is the BEST way for a technician to correct this issue?
A. Open the power supply and replace the fan.
B. Supplement with additional case fans.
C. Use a screwdriver to move the fan blades.
D. Remove and replace the power supply.
Answer: D

24. Which of the following would have to be disabled on a PC if a user wants to assign a static IP address on that PC?
A. SSID
B. MAC filtering
C. DHCP
D. DNS
Answer: C

25. A user gets an error that the SQL service is not started. Which of the following can the technician do to start the service? (Select TWO).
A. Start>Programs/Accessories/System Tools/Scheduled Tasks>Services>Start
B. Control Panel>System>Advanced Tab>Startup and Recovery>Settings>Automatically Restart in
System Startup
C. Control Panel>Administrative Tools>Services>SQL service>start
D. Run prompt, type msconfig>Startup Tab>enable the SQL application to start
E. My Computer>Manage>Services and Applications>Services>SQL service>start
Answer: CE

26. A remote 220-602 study guide user is attempting to install a new external storage device on their computer. The user reports they only have one port open on the back of the device and the port is similar to the USB port their mouse is connected to. The port has a bevel on one side and is slightly larger than the USB port. Which of the following connector types is MOST likely being described?
A. IEEE 1394
B. USB 2.0
C. PCMCIA
D. Parallel
Answer: A

27. A printer is suddenly not printing using Windows XP. Which of the following is the BEST procedure to get the printing restarted?
A. Delete the printer drivers and restart the spooler service.
B. Examine the print queue, stop and then restart the spooler service.
C. Examine printer and faxes folder and check event log then start spooler service.
D. Delete the printer drivers, then delete and reload spooler service.
Answer: B

28. A technician purchases and installs a replacement motherboard for an older system. Which of the following should the technician do after the installation?
A. Install Windows.
B. Update firmware.
C. Apply Windows updates.
D. Update the power supply.
Answer: B

29. A user reports that they cannot access a file on the local D drive of their PC. This is a nonsystem/ nonboot drive. The technician needs to run chkdsk without rebooting the system. Which of the following methods will meet this goal?
A. From the command line, run chkdsk utilizing the /f switch.
B. From the command line, run chkdsk utilizing the /x switch.
C. Use the diskpart utility with the select option.
D. Use the Disk Management console to dismount the D drive and run chkdsk.
Answer: B

30. Which of the following cable types is required at minimum, to support a 10/100/1000BaseT SOHO LAN?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5e
C. CAT1
D. CAT5
Answer: B

2. A technician has installed a new video card and the computer will now only boot into VGA mode.
Which of the following may be the cause of the problem?
A. There is an operating system incompatibility.
B. The incorrect drivers are installed.
C. The external monitor is not compatible.
D. The new card is not DVI compatible.
Answer: B

3. After installing a new cable modem and new router, 220-601
which of the following should be the order used to start up the devices?
A. Turn on the cable modem, then the router, and then the computer.
B. Turn on the cable modem, then the computer, and then the router.
C. Turn on the router, then the computer, and then the cable modem.
D. Turn on the computer, then the cable modem, and then the router.
Answer: A

4. IEEE 1284 is a standard for:
A. infrared communication.
B. wireless networks.
C. wired networks.
D. parallel communication.
Answer: D

5. Which of the following is the fastest method to transfer data wirelessly?
A. Bluetooth
B. Standard infrared
C. General Packet Radio System (GPRS)
D. 802.11
Answer: D

6. Windows XP is being installed from a CD onto a computer that has no operating system. Which of the following installation methods would MOST likely be used?
A. Multiboot
B. Network
C. Attended
D. Automated
Answer: C

7. NTFS should be used for Windows XP rather than FAT32 because NTFS: (Select TWO).
A. allows for faster hard drive access.
B. ensured that all users networked to a computer can read files.
C. gives a user more useable hard drive space.
D. allows Windows XP to use all available security features.
E. ensures full compatibility with new software.
Answer: CD

8. Which of the following assigns IP addresses to computers on a network? (Select TWO).
A. Exchange Server
B. Residential Router
C. DHCP Server
D. PC assigns its own
E. Switch
Answer: BC

9. The amount of power output from a power supply is rated in:
A. volts.
B. watts.
C. ampere hours.
D. joules.
Answer: B

10. In Windows XP, which of the following steps would be taken to set the permissions for a user to print within a specific time frame?
A. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > Printer Settings > select the time
B. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > Security tab > Time
C. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > Advanced tab > select the time
D. Printers and Faxes > right click the printer > Properties > General tab > Time
Answer: C

11. Which of the following types of fire extinguishers would be MOST appropriate to use on a fire in a laptop?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: C

12. Which of the following is the BEST way to remove 220-601 dumps
a USB device on a laptop computer?
A. Remove hardware in Control Panel.
B. Stop the device, and then remove from laptop.
C. Turn off the laptop, and then turn off the device.
D. Remove the driver from Device Manager.
Answer: B

13. A coworker in the shop is being electrocuted while working on an improperly grounded CPU case. Which of the following is the BEST action to take?
A. Start CPR immediately.
B. Kick the computer case away from the worker.
C. Immediately turn off the power at the circuit breaker.
D. Use a wooden broom to separate the coworker from the CPU case.
Answer: C

14. If a technician is cleaning a mouse with rubbing alcohol from a spray bottle, which of the following should be worn?
A. Nonconductive shoes
B. An antistatic wrist strap
C. Safety clothing
D. Safety glasses
Answer: D

15. Which of the following memory modules has 72 pins? (Select TWO).
A. SIMM
B. DIMM
C. RIMM
D. SODIMM
E. RAMBUS
Answer: AD

16. Which of the following memory modules has the HIGHEST transfer rate?
A. PC2100
B. DDR333
C. DDR400
D. PC2700
Answer: C

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives?
A. Builtin encryption standards
B. Larger capacity than traditional magnetic drives
C. Lack of drive heads and platters
D. Higher data integrity
Answer: C

18. Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).
A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.
B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.
C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.
D. The printers IP address has changed.
E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.
Answer: CD

19. The Windows Experience Index is used to determine:
A. remaining hard disk storage space.
B. a performance value of system components.
C. the speed and available bandwidth of Internet connections.
D. the reliability and speed of search indexing.
Answer: B

20. A users documents are now printing to a newly installed printer instead of to the printer they regularly use. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. The old printer is out of paper.
B. The new printer drivers wrote over the old drivers.
C. The new printer was automatically set as the default printer.
D. The new printer has a lower IP address number than the older printer.
Answer: C

21. Which of the following audio/video devices have the ability to decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source?
A. TV tuner card
B. Graphics card
C. Video capture card
D. Sound card
Answer: A

22. Which of the following types of media is considered solid state?
A. Tape drive
B. Floppy disk
C. DVD
D. Flash media
Answer: D

23. When installing the heatsink back into a computer after replacing a failed processor, which of the following must be done during installation?
A. Thermal compound must be installed between the processor and the heatsink.
B. An isopropyl alcohol pad must be placed between the processor and the heatsink.
C. An isopropyl alcohol pad must be placed between the processor and the system board.
D. Thermal compound must be installed between the processor and the system board.
Answer: A

24. Which of the following is used to control access to a network based on the address hard coded into the NIC?
A. 802.11n
B. MAC filtering
C. Channel 11
D. SSID
Answer: B

25. A client needs a laser printer cleaned. Which of the following tools would be appropriate to clean the inside of a laser printer?
A. Office vacuum
B. Toner vacuum
C. Damp cloth
D. Air compressor
Answer: B

26. Which of the following is the system bus 220-601 study guide speed of a PC2700 memory?
A. 133MHz
B. 166MHz
C. 266MHz
D. 333MHz
Answer: B

27. Which of the following is the BitLocker utility used for?
A. Storing passwords
B. Blocking harmful network traffic
C. Securing wireless access points
D. Encrypting hard drives
Answer: D

28. Which of the following components should be in contact with thermal compound? (Select TWO).
A. Motherboard
B. Fan
C. Heatsink
D. CPU
E. Capacitors
Answer: CD

29. A user states that their five year old system is shutting down randomly. A technician verifies that the heat sink is properly seated and all fans are operating. Which of the following would MOST likely be causing this issue?
A. Modem driver conflict
B. Dried thermal compound
C. Malfunctioning optical drive
D. The latest service pack is not installed
Answer: B

30. A technician notices that there is a second partition on the primary hard drive. This partition is not assigned a drive letter and is not accessible from Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this extra partition?
A. Space reserved by the drive manufacturer for firmware.
B. Space set aside by Windows for use by the virtual memory swap file.
C. A potentially dangerous virus has been downloaded onto the system.
D. A recovery partition put there by the manufacturer.
Answer: D